A 40 year old with brittle asthma presents with left hip and groin pain. It is very painful to weight bear. An x-ray reveals no evidence of a fracture. What investigation will give the definitive diagnosis?
MRI of the left hip
Autoantibodies
Inflammatory markers
X-ray of left knee
Arthroscope of left knee
A patient is post ERCP and develops severe epigastric pain. Given the likely diagnosis, how would you manage this patient?
IV fluids, analgesia and antibiotics
Repeat ERCP
Laparotomy
Analgesia
CT Abdomen
A young patient is referred after having an eye test for deteriorating vision. Examination reveals elevated blood pressure, 7 large cafe au lait spots, axillary freckles and scoliosis. What is the diagnosis?
Neurofibromatosis type 1
Neurofibromatosis type 2
Phaeochromocytoma
Tuberous sclerosis
Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 1
23 Yrs old girl present to you (usual GP) For her already scheduled “PAP” smear .It was scheduled now because she had a "possible/low grade squamous intra-epithelial lesion"in her routine PAP test six months ago .You try to explain/manage regrading the new recommendation of the Australian Cervical screening test (CST).Which is The CORRECT Statement?
1.As she is only 23 years ,she is advised to return to the office for new “CST” soon after her 25 th Birthday.
2.Cervical screen test is starting from the age of 25 yrs (normal asymptomatic) and conducted every 2 yearly .
3.She can under go new cervical screen test but not eligible for Chlamydia screen.
4.New cervical screen is to Detect Oncogenic virus HPV16/18 in Liquid base medium and cytology in smear based Slide.
5.In this particular case, this girl should under go Cervical screen test ,and if it comes back positive she should under go coloposcopy.