A 51-year-old man presents to the emergency department (ED) 30 minutes after experiencing difficulty speaking and moving the left side of his body. The patient is alert and oriented to person and place. His wife states that he has a history of benign prostatic hypertrophy and high blood pressure. According to the wife, the patient has never experienced symptoms like this before and has never had surgery of any type. The ED physicians determine that the patient is hemodynamically stable and an initial CT scan is normal. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
(A) Echocardiogram
(B) Hemicraniectomy
© Heparin
(D) Insulin
(E) Tissue plasminogen activator