Ophthalmology MCQ 81-100

  1. A patient is having narrow angle glaucoma. Drug contraindicated in this patient is
    a) Acetazolamide
    b) Timolol
    c) Homatropine
    d) Pilocarpine

Answer: Homatropine
Explanation:
Medical treatment in narrow angle glaucoma:
Systemic hyper-osmotic agent: Mannitol 1gm/kg
Acetazolamide
Pilocarpine eye drop
Beta blocker eye drop: Timolol
Corticosteroid eye drop
Important point:
Homatropine is contraindicated in patients with angle closure glaucoma.

  1. Most common carcinoma causing intraocular metastasis in females is
    a) Endometrial carcinoma
    b) Ovarian carcinoma
    c) Cervical carcinoma
    d) Breast carcinoma

Answer: Breast carcinoma
Explanation:
Most common primary tumor causing intra-ocular metastasis:
Women: Breast cancer
Men: Lung cancer

  1. Conjunctiva in Vitamin A deficiency shows
    a) Squamous hyperplasia
    b) Goblet cell hyperplasia
    c) Stromal inflammation
    d) Actinic degeneration

Answer: Squamous hyperplasia
Explanation:
Vitamin A deficiency:
Early ocular surface changes include keratinization of the conjunctiva and development of superficial punctate keratopathy.
More severe deficiency results in corneal keratinization, ulceration, and necrosis.
Vitamin A is necessary for normal differentiation of non-squamous epithelium; keratinization is a direct consequence of its deficiency.

  1. Not derived from neuro-ectoderm
    a) Retina
    b) Ciliary muscle
    c) Dilator pupillae
    d) Sphincter pupillae

Answer: Ciliary muscle
Explanation:
Ocular structures derived from neuro-ectoderm:
Retina with its pigment epithelium
Epithelial layer of ciliary body
Epithelial layer iris
Dilator pupillae and Sphincter pupillae
Optic nerve
Melanocyte
Secondary vitreous
Ciliary zonules

  1. Micro-aneurysms in diabetic retinopathy occur in which layer?
    a) Inner nuclear layer
    b) Outer plexiform layer
    c) Retinal pigment epithelium
    d) Layer of rods and cones

Answer: Inner nuclear layer
Explanation:
Micro-aneurysms are the earliest clinical sign of diabetic retinopathy and occur secondary to capillary wall out-pouching due to pericyte loss.
They appear as small red dots in the superficial retinal layers, and there is fibrin and red blood cell accumulation in the micro-aneurysm lumen.
Micro-aneurysms are located within the inner nuclear layer in capillaries linking the superficial and deep capillary network.
Hemorrhages – Ruptured micro-aneurysms, capillaries and venules are all sources of intra-retinal hemorrhages, which are mostly located within the outer plexiform and inner nuclear layers.
Hard Exudates – Extracellular collections of macrophages within the outer plexiform layer, derived from ingested leaked lipid & proteins from the abnormal vessels.
Retinal edema – Fluid collects initially between the outer plexiform and inner nuclear layer; secondary edema appear between the inner plexiform and nerve fibre layers.

  1. Soft exudates deposits seen in which layer of retina?
    a) Outer plexiform layer
    b) Inner nuclear layer
    c) Ganglionic layer
    d) Rods and cones cell layer

Answer: Ganglionic layer
Explanation:
Cotton wool spots result from occlusion of retinal pre-capillary arterioles supplying the nerve fibre layer with concomitant swelling of local nerve fibre axons. Also called “soft exudates” or “nerve fibre layer infarctions” they are white, fluffy lesions in the nerve fibre layer.
The retinal nerve fiber layer (RNFL) is formed by retinal ganglion cell axons and represents the innermost layer of the fundus.

  1. Critical angle of corneal-air interface is
    a) 46°
    b) 66°
    c) 36°
    d) 56°

Answer: 46°
Explanation:
The challenge of visualizing the anterior chamber angle structures lies with the critical angle.
The critical angle for the cornea-air interface is approximately 46°.
Corneal lenses or mirrors are needed to overcome the internal reflection of light. In direct gonioscopy, the anterior curve of the contact lens is such that the critical angle is not reached, and the light rays are refracted at the contact lens-air interface.
In indirect gonioscopy, the light rays are reflected by a mirror in the contact lens and leave the lens at nearly a right angle to the contact lens-air interface.

  1. Ex-press implant of glaucoma is made up of
    a) Titanium
    b) Silicon
    c) Stainless steel
    d) None

Answer: Stainless steel
Explanation:
The Ex-Press Mini Glaucoma Shunt is biocompatible device for implantation under the conjunctiva for controlling intraocular pressure (IOP).
It is a non-valved, MRI compatible, stainless steel device with a 50 micron lumen. It has an external disc at one end and a spur-like extension on the other to prevent extrusion.

  1. Ascorbate and alpha tocopherol levels are maintained in the lens by
    a) Glucose
    b) Fatty acids
    c) Glutathione
    d) Glycoprotein

Answer: Glutathione
Explanation:
Ocular concentrations of glutathione are very high when compared with most other tissues and decreased levels of glutathione are associated with both age related macular degeneration and cataract, and in diabetic patients with similar conditions.
Glutathione is critical in maintaining the reduced state of sulfhydryl-containing proteins in the lens.
Glutathione normally functions to maintain ascorbate, alpha-tocopherol, and other cellular components in reduced states.

  1. Pt presents with chuna particles fallen into the eye. Which of the following should not be done?
    a) Repeated irrigation of conjunctival sac with NS
    b) Frequent instillation of Na citrate drops
    c) Thorough slit lamp exam
    d) Double eversion of lids and removal of chuna particles

Answer: Thorough slit lamp exam
Explanation:
Kids have lost eyesight due to sudden bursting of packets of chuna or calcium hydroxide, an additive used with chewing tobacco, and children are at the risk of “irreversibly” damaging their eyes in families where this habit is prevalent.
Once chuna enters the eye, it sticks into the eye under the eyelid. Even thorough washing doesn’t remove all the particles.
Chuna particles leach from under the eyelid and get into cornea, destroying its outer covering called epithelium.
The tear secretion system gets completely destroyed and the eye becomes dry. It can lead to complete blindness.
Immediate response to such a situation should be vigorous washing of eye with water or with 0.9% saline if available.
After irrigation, the conjunctival fornices should be examined for chemical embedded in the tissue and swept with a swab to remove trapped particles. The superior fornices are exposed by using double eyelid eversion
The incidence of ulceration and perforation in the cornea of alkali-injured eyes is significantly reduced by treatment with tri-sodium citrate or sodium ascorbate. Topical citrate reduces the inflammatory response in the cornea by inhibiting polymorphonuclear leukocytes.

  1. Which of the following organism causes corneal perforation in just 2 days?
    a) Staphylococcus
    b) Pseudomonas
    c) Diphtheria
    d) Aspergillus

Answer: Pseudomonas
Explanation:
Eighty percent of bacterial corneal ulcers are caused by Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Pseudomonas species. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most frequent and the most pathogenic ocular pathogen which can cause corneal perforation in just 2-3 days.
The most common organisms associated with contact lens related bacterial keratitis are Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Staphylococci.

  1. Gas used in retinopexy
    a) Co2
    b) SF6
    c) Nitrous oxide
    d) None

Answer: SF6
Explanation:
Pneumatic retinopexy (PR) is an alternative to scleral buckling for the surgical repair of selected retinal detachments.
A gas bubble is injected into the vitreous cavity, and the patient is positioned so that the bubble closes the retinal break (s), allowing absorption of the sub-retinal fluid.
Cryotherapy or laser photocoagulation is applied around the retinal break(s) to form a permanent seal.
Sulfur hexafluoride (SF6) is the gas most frequently used for PR, followed by per-fluoro-propane (C3F8).

  1. Sub-retinal demarcation (water line) is seen in-
    a) Chronic retinal detachment
    b) Ependymoma
    c) Neo-vascularization
    d) Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment

Answer: Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment
Explanation:
Rhegmatogenous or primary retinal detachment:
Usually associated with a retinal break through which sub-retinal fluid seep and separate the sensory retina from pigmentary epithelium.
Old retinal detachment is characterized by retinal thinning due to atrophy, formation of sub-retinal demarcation (High water marks) and formation of secondary intra-retinal cysts in very old retinal detachment.

  1. The light peak/dark trough (L/D) ratio in normal electro-oculogram reading
    a) 1
    b) 1.5
    c) > 185
    d) < 185
    Answer: > 185
    Explanation:
    The electro-oculogram (EOG) is an electro-physiologic test that measures the existing resting electrical potential between the cornea and Bruch’s membrane.
    The smaller amplitudes are recorded when the eyes make the saccadic eye movements in the dark (dark trough); the peak amplitude is recorded against a steady light background (light peak).
    The light peak/dark trough (L/D) ratio is an Arden index used to assess retinal function.
    An Arden ratio of 1.85 or greater is normal, 1.65 to 1.80 is subnormal, and < 1.65 is significantly subnormal.
    For flat curve: < 1.25

  2. Absolute contra-indication of corneal transplantation are all except:
    a) TB meningitis
    b) Rabies
    c) Sub-acute sclerosing pan-encephalitis (SSPE)
    d) Death due to unknown cause

Answer: TB meningitis
Explanation:
Absolute contra-indication of corneal transplantation:
Rabies
Viral Hepatitis
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
Septicemia
Sub-acute sclerosing pan-encephalitis (SSPE)
Death due to unknown cause

  1. Which of the following procedure do not need dilatation of pupil?
    a) Gonioscopy
    b) Fundus examination
    c) Laser infero-meter
    d) Retinoscopy

Answer: Gonioscopy
Explanation:
Gonioscopic procedure doesn’t need dilatation of pupil.
Use to examine the angle of anterior chamber

  1. Most common cause of corneal edema in hypoxic condition
    a) CO2
    b) Lactic acid
    c) Glycogen
    d) Pyruvate

Answer: Lactic acid
Explanation:
Stromal lactate accumulation can account for corneal edema osmotically following epithelial hypoxia.

  1. Autosomal dominant congenital cataract gene
    a) PITX 3
    b) SIX 5
    c) PAX 6
    d) BAX RT

Answer: PITX 3
Explanation:
Autosomal dominant congenital cataract:
PITX 3
BFSP2
Heat shock factor-4 (HSF4)

  1. Which one of following is used in retinal sealing?
    a) Co
    b) SF6
    c) Nitrous oxide
    d) So2

Answer: SF6
Explanation:
Pneumatic retinopexy (PR) is an alternative to scleral buckling for the surgical repair of selected retinal detachments.
A gas bubble is injected into the vitreous cavity, and the patient is positioned so that the bubble closes the retinal break (s), allowing absorption of the sub-retinal fluid.
Cryotherapy or laser photocoagulation is applied around the retinal break(s) to form a permanent seal.
Sulfur hexafluoride (SF6) is the gas most frequently used for PR, followed by per-fluoro-propane (C3F8).

  1. Which of following can be used in fungal corneal ulcer?
    a) Vancomycin
    b) Silver sulfadiazine
    c) Doxycycline
    d) Linezolid

Answer: Silver sulfadiazine
Explanation:
Silver sulfadiazine is a topical antimicrobial agent with both antifungal and antibacterial activity and may also be useful in kerato-mycosis