Jipmer entrance exam model question paper

1)Vocalis Muscle is a part of
a)Thyroarytenoid
b)Cricoarytenoid
c)Transverse arytenoid
d)Posterior cricoarytenoid

2)Sumatriptan is contraindicated in
a)Asthma
b)DM
c)Coronary artery disease
d)peripheral vascular disease

3)All following are true of seminiferous tubules except
a)Sertoli cells
b)Leydig cells
c)spermatid
d)Spermatogonia

4)Sub-poena is a
a)Legal
b)medicolegal
c)Medical
d)first info report

5)Skin supplied over the angle of mandible and parotid area is by
a)Greater auricular
b)posterior auricular
c)auriculotemporal
d)facial

6)Adductor pollicis is supplied by
a)Superficial branch of ulnar nerve
b)deep branch of ulnar nerve
c)radial nerve d)median nerve

7)Klumpke paralysis is
a)C5,C6
B)C6,C7
C)C8,T1
D)T1,T2

8)For the treatment of a patient with after cataract which laser is used
a)LASIC
b)YAG
c)excimer
d)Argon

9)Most malignant breast tumor of the following is
a)inflammatory carcinoma
b)Mucinous carcinoma
c)Colloid carcinoma
d)Paget’s` disease of breast.

10)Full thickness graft means:
a)Only epidermis
b)epidermis and superficial dermis
c)epidermis + whole dermis
d)epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous tissue

11)A 50yr old woman weighing 50kg and having almost complete burns comes to burns ward. According to Parklands formula ,the amt. of fluid for resuscitation in 24hrs.
a)5L
b)10L
c)12L
d)14L

12)Investigation of choice for DVT is
a)Duplex
b)Venogram
c)MRI
c)radioisotope scan

13)After closed reduction of supracondylar fracture of humerus, flexion greater than 90 degree causes disappearance of radial pulse. The next line of management is
a)Conservative
b)Exploration for arterial rupture
c)Keep elbow at 90 in cast
d)Open reduction & internal fixation.

14)Open reduction & fixation does all except
a)consolidation
b)Stability
c)better function
d)Better alignment

  1. In fracture shaft of femur, which nail is commonly used for ORIF
    a)Kuntshner nail
    b)Austin Moore pine
    c)K. wire
    d)Smith Peterson nail

16)Snow storm appearance on CXR is seen in
a)anthracosis
b)asbestosis
c)Silicosis
d)Bagassosis

17)Housemaid Knee is inflammation of
a)prepatellar bursa
b)Suprapatellar bursa
c)Infrapatellar bursa
d)anserine bursa

  1. Height increase in adolescent/year is
    a)8.5 cm
    b)9.5
    c)10.5
    d)13.5

19)Patient with genotype XO will have following phenotype except
a)Tall stature
b)Broad Chest
c)Webbed neck
d)Lymphedema

20)treatment of carcinoma thyroid using radioactive iodine is
a) I131
b) I125
c) I133

  1. solitary nodule of thyroid in a male aged 40yr from a non-endemic area would most likely have
    a)MNG
    b)papillary ca Thyroid
    c)follicular ca
    d)

22)In assessment of gestational age of a neonate the following all seen except
a)Breast bud
b)Ocular
c)Genitalia
d)scrotal skin

23)On USG, the appendix is seen, it is most likely due to
a)Retrocecal appendix
b)Acute appendicitis
d)preileal appendix

24)Vesicular lesion is seen in
a)Primary syphilis
b)secondary syphilis
c)tertiary syphilis
d)congenital syphilis

  1. all the following are beta-blockers except
    a)Esmolol
    b)sotalol
    c) celiprolol
    d)bambuterol

26)Longest acting antihistamine is
a)Cetrizine
b)Astemizole
c)terfenadine
d)acrivastive

  1. All are specific to TB except
    a) Epituberculosis
    b) Phlycten
    c) Erythema nodosum
    d) lupus vulgaris

  2. The following macrolides are used for toxoplasmosis except
    a) Erythromycin
    b) clarithromycin
    c) Azithromycin
    d) spiramycin

  3. Following are third generation cephalosporins except
    a) cefuroxime
    b) ceftriaxone
    c) ceftazidime
    d) cefotaxime

  4. Evidence of ovulation has occurred is all except
    a) 10 mm graffian follicles on USG**
    b) progesterone > 5ng/ml
    c) corpus luteum
    d) Biphasic increase in temperature

  5. Vestibular anus is
    a) imperforate anus
    b) high anorectal
    c) low anorectal
    d) mid anorectal

  6. Brawny swelling below the angle of mandible likely diagnosis is
    a) Vincent’s angina
    b) Ludwig’s angina
    c) ranula
    d) hydrocele of neck

  7. Apraxia is
    a) normal sensory system, normal motor system, abnormal cerebellar system
    b) normal sensory system, abnormal motor system, normal cerebellar system
    c) abnormal sensory system, normal motor system, normal cerebellar system
    d) normal sensory system, normal motor system, normal cerebellar system

34)infantile autism is seen in
a) dysthymic personality
b) personality disorder
b) paranoid personality
d) behavioral disorder

  1. In pulmonary embolism, the receptor involving causing reflex hyperventilation is
    a) J-receptor
    b) slow adapting receptor
    c) fast adapting receptor
    d) Irritant receptors

  2. Cazt** channel defect is seen in
    a) hypokalemic periodic paralysis
    b) hyperkalemic periodic paralysis
    c) paramyotonia congenita
    d)

  3. Which is not an aldolase
    a) glucose
    b) Mannose
    c) fructose
    d) starch

  4. Excitatory neurotransmitter in brain is
    a) GABA
    b) Glycine
    c) glutamate
    d) Aspartate

  5. In an elderly hypertension patient with arteriosclerosis renin level in blood will be
    a) high
    b) low
    c) normal
    d) not related to HT

39)lagopathalmos is seen in
a) leprosy
b) syphilis
c) peripheral neuritis
d) HZV infection
40) Topical steroids is used in
a) Interstitial keratitis
b) bacterial keratitis
c) pendrotic
d) herpetic

  1. In myasthenia gravis, true is
    a) antibody is present against nicotinic receptor
    b) decreased Acetylcholine release
    c) decreased no of receptors
    d) end organ resistance

  2. Insulin sensitivity increases on following treat except
    a) metformin
    b) acarbose
    c) exercise
    d) fasting

  3. All the following are anticonvulsants except
    a) lamotrigine
    b) methyl phenytoline
    c) vigabatrin
    d) topiramate

  4. Tubal patency test is done by which test?
    a) sion test
    b) frei’s test
    c) bonney’s test
    d) three swab test

  5. cells are most susceptible to radiation in which phase
    a) M phase
    b) G2 phase
    c) G1 phase
    d) S phase
    Ans. Ref:

  6. end product of ?- hydroxylation is
    a) Acetyl CoA + propionyl CoA
    b) Acetyl CoA + succinyl CoA
    c) Acetyl CoA +
    d) Acetyl CoA + malonyl CoA

  7. Morrison pouch is
    a) subphrenic space
    b) posterior to lateral lobe of liver
    c) lesser sac

  8. In massive pericardial effusion all are seen except a) on fluoroscopy less prominent vascular marking
    b) CT ratio >0.5
    c) CP angles acute
    d) Plethoric pulmonary fields

  9. single plate coated with ammonium***** is present in all except
    a) X-ray
    b) MMR
    c) CT scan
    d) USG film

  10. The most common cause of spasm of psoas in childhood is
    a) trauma
    b) tuberculosis psoas
    c) acute appendicitis
    d) pyogenic psoas abscess

  11. which leucotriene is the adhesion factor for the neutrophil on the cell surface to attach endothelium
    a) B4
    b) C4
    c)D4
    d) E4

  12. In the following conditions, bone matrix is reduced except
    a) osteoporosis
    b) osteomalacia
    c) hyperparathyroidism
    d) osteopetrosis
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  13. which of the following is formed by the intestinal mucosal cells on absorption of dietary lipids
    a) chylomicrons
    b) VLDL
    c) HDL
    d) LDL

  14. In a patient with solitary nodule of thyroid, investigation of choice is
    a) FNAC
    b) USG
    c) CT
    d) Radioisotope scan

  15. how many double bonds are present in arachidonic acid?
    a) One
    b) two
    c) Three
    d) Four

  16. Autoinduction of biotransformation and action as a hormone is seen in
    a) carbamazepine
    b) cimetidine
    c) corticosteroid.

  17. G-6-P-D inheritance is
    a) X-linked - recessive
    b) autosomal dominant
    c) autosomal recessive
    d) x linked dominant

  18. most common organism causing spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is
    a) staphylococcus
    b)
    c) salmonella
    d) streptococcus

  19. symblepharon is caused by
    a) diphtheria
    b) gonococci
    c) chlamydia
    d) opthalmia neonatorum

  20. jargon aphasia is seen in
    a) wenicke’s
    b) broca’s aphasia
    c) conduction aphasia

  21. multiple calcification in the brain or cystic calcification in the brain or comma shaped calcification seen in
    a) CMV
    b) neurocysticercosis
    c) tuberous sclerosis
    d) toxoplasmosis

62)On CT scan, all are seen as hypodense area except
a) cerebral hemorrhage
b) glioblastoma
c) cerebral edema
d) cerebral infarct

  1. hypertensive bleed mostly occurs in
    a)putamen
    b) pons
    c) cortex
    d) thalamus

  2. leukemoid reaction type 2 in leprosy is due to
    a) type I hypersensitivity
    b) Type II hypersensitivity
    c)type III hypersensitivity
    d) type IV hypersensitivity

  3. IL-1 & TNF ? causes
    a) increasing capillary permeability
    c) acute phase reactants
    b) chemotaxis
    d) activate endothelium

  4. thimble pitting nails are seen in
    a) psoriasis
    b) tinea versicolor
    c)lichen planus
    d)tuberculosis

  5. Ridley-Jopling classification includes all except
    a) lepromatous leprosy
    b) borderline borderline
    c) tuberculoid
    d) neuritic

  6. Pressure necrosis which causes venous flow to stop during endotracheal intubation occurs at
    a) 20 - 30 mm Hg
    b) 15 - 20 mm Hg
    c) 30-40 mm Hg
    d) 16 -15 mm Hg

  7. diagnosis of mucopolysacharridoses can be done by examination of
    a) cornea
    b) skin
    c) bone
    d) face

  8. most important sensory organ in the ampulla is
    a) organ of corti
    b) macula
    c)otolithi
    d) crista

  9. carotid body baroreceptor is most sensitive to
    a)mean blood pressure
    b) diastolic blood pressure
    c) systolic blood pressure
    d) Pulse pressure

  10. the following are derived from endoderm except
    a) liver
    b) kidney
    c) pancreas
    d)urinary bladder

73)In malaria acquired by transfusion, the infective form is
a) sporozoites
b) shistozoites
c) gametocytes
d) merozoites

  1. longest diameter of the skull is
    a) suboccipital bregmatic
    b) occipital frontal
    c) bitemporal
    d) biparietal

  2. the management of eclampsia includes all except
    a) control of convulsion
    b) prolongation of pregnancy
    c) control of BP
    d) delivery of fetus

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76) calculate the pearl index if 6 pregnancy occurs in 1200 females practicing contraception for 1 year
a) 6
b) 12
c) 18
d) 24

  1. deep transverse arrest occurs in
    a) android
    b) anthropoid
    c) gynecoid
    d) flat pelvis

  2. false positive rinne’s test occur in
    a) unilateral conductive deafness
    b) unilateral sensory neural deafness
    c) bilateral conductive deafness
    d) bilateral sensory neural deafness

  3. A nulliparous female aged 30 years develops IInd degree UV prolapse. The operative procedure done is
    a) cervicopexy
    b)LeForte
    c)Manchester

  4. following are true of hemorrhoids except
    a) they are arteriolar dilatations
    b) they are common causes of painless bleeding
    c) they cannot be per rectally palpated

  5. waves on EEG during NREM period of sleep is
    a) alpha
    b) beta
    c) delta
    d) theta

  6. following is true of hormone leptin except
    a) it is found in increased levels in obese
    b) it’s site of action is hypothalmus
    c) it is produced by adipose all
    d) it increases appetite.

  7. The incisura of arterial pulse corresponds with
    a)S1
    b) S2
    c) opening snap

  8. S3

  9. the one organism which is responsible for coronary artery disease
    a) chlamydia
    b) klebsiella
    c) E coli
    d) mycoplasma

  10. all the following are suggestive of urethral injury except
    a) blood at meatus
    b) haematoma of scrotum
    c) high prostate on PR
    d) blood in rectum

  11. to assess the refraction state of eye, the investigation done is
    a) USG - Bscan
    b) retinoscopy
    c) binoculoscopy
    d) opthalmoscopy

  12. which of the following has worst prognoses in carcinoma lung
    a) squamous cell carcinoma
    b) large cell carcinoma
    c) small cell carcinoma
    d)adenocarcinoma

  13. Herbert’s pit is seen in
    a) vernal conjunctivitis
    b) atopic conjunctivitis
    c) gonococcal conjunctivitis
    d)chlamydial conjunctivitis

  14. the amount of rads required for treatment of oropharyngeal carcinoma is
    a) 3000 - 4000 rads
    b) 4000- 5000 rads
    c) 5000 - 6000
    d) 6000 - 7000

  15. prolonged ST segment with T wave seen in
    a) hypokalemia
    b) hyperkalemia
    c) hypomagnesemia
    d) hypocalcemia

  16. In a meconium aspirated baby following are investigations. pO2=50, pCO2=60 & blood pH=7.1. the next line of management of giving I V infusion to correct this condition is
    a) NAHCO3 solution
    b) ringer lactate
    c) CPAP
    d) endotracheal intubation & IPPV

  17. which of the following hormones increase during sleep
    a) insulin
    b) ACTH
    c) GH
    d) melatonin

  18. epidermolysis bullosa is due to
    a) autoimmune disease
    b) atopic disease
    c) infective agent
    d) genetic fragility of skin

  19. A child suffering from marasmus was given high protein diet. The metabolic change likely is
    a) hyperargininemia
    b) hyperammonemia
    c) hyperlysinemia
    d) hypernatremia.

  20. the ORS fluid used for a marasmic child lacks in (racemol)
    a) amino acids
    b) sodium
    c) copper
    d) magnesium

  21. which of the following cell has both T lymphocyte and B lymphocyte function
    a) plasma cell
    b) T- lymphoblast cell
    c)B-lymphoblast cell
    d) NK cell

  22. the treatment of choice in angiofibroma is a 12 year old boy is
    a) radio treatment
    b) chemo treatment
    c) embolisation of inferior palatine artery
    d) surgery
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  23. the approximate magnitude of completed family size from demographic point view is given by
    a) TFR
    b) GFR
    c)NRR

  24. all the following are examples of health promotion except
    a) stop smoking
    b) regular exercise
    c) chemoprophylaxis

  25. one of the following helps deliver baby in a community
    a) health assistant female
    b) anganwadi worker
    c) health supervisor
    d) village health guide

  26. Least recurrence of peptic ulcer most commonly occurs in
    a) selective vagotomy
    b) TV + GJ
    c) Pure gastroenterostomy
    d) TV+ antrectomy

  27. CABG has successful outcome and prognosis if done in
    a) double vessel obstruction
    b) left coronary artery obstruction without left ventricular dysfunction
    c) single vessel obstruction

  28. osteochondroma is a disease of
    a)metaphysis
    b) diaphysis
    c) epiphysis
    d) periosteum

  29. testicular seminoma, secretes
    a) ? -FP
    b) CEA
    c) B-HCG
    d)

  30. which of the following is contraindicated in early pregnancy
    a) heparin
    b) phenytoin
    c) chlor****
    d) penicillin

  31. action potential is transmitted to myofibrils via
    a) terminal cisterns
    b) T- Tubules
    c) longitudinal
    d) sarcomere

  32. humidification of O2 is required in
    a) nasopharyngeal intubation
    b) nasal prong
    c) nasal catheter
    d) face mask

  33. earliest sign of vitamin A deficiency is
    a) conjunctival xerosis
    b) corneal xerosis
    c) bitot’s spot
    d)nightblindness

  34. Pinta is caused by
    a) T pertenue
    b) T pallidum
    c) T carateum
    d) Borrelia burgdorferi.

  35. all the following cause priapism except
    a) trauma
    b) Beta thalassemia
    c) sickle cell disease
    d) leriche syndrome

  36. yellow fever is not present in India because of all except
    a) the virus is absent
    b) the vector mosquito culex vishnui
    c) atmospheric condition is suitable

  37. phage typing is useful in classification of all except
    a) staphylococcus
    b) streptococcus
    c) cholera
    d) salmonella

113)the revised national TB program uses one of the following for diagnosis of TB
a) sputum AFB
b) CXR
c) clinical examination
d) PCR

  1. following are true of rubella except
    a) IP: 14-21days
    b) rosy red spots on palate
    c) encephalitis

  2. hemodialysis is useful in all except
    a) salicylate poisoning
    b) methyl alcohol poisoning
    c) digitalis
    d) barbiturate

  3. proliferation of mesangial cell & perimesangial on microscopy is seen in
    a) lg A nephropathy
    b) lipoid nephrosis
    c) membranoproliferative disease
    d) membranous glomerulonephritis

  4. point prevalence of a chronic disease is studied best by
    a) case control study
    b) cross sectional study
    c) historical cohort
    d) cohort

  5. De quervain’s thyroiditis is due to all except
    a) it is due to virus
    b) antibodies against follicular cells
    c) it is self limited granulomatous thyroiditis

119)partial prothromboplastin time is prolonged in all except
a) protein C deficiency
b) protein S deficiency
c) antithrombin III deficiency
d) factor V deficiency

  1. the treatment of primary ovarian failure is
    a) FSH
    b) GnRH
    c)LH
    d)estrogen progesterone

121)LDL cholesterol in blood recommended to prevent coronary artery disease is
a)130mg/dl
b)160mg/dl
c)100mg/dl
d)180mg/dl