You have treated by telephone a woman whose past experience made her quite credible in self-diagnosing uncomplicated candida vaginitis. Twice you treated her with a single 150 mg dose of fluconazole. Both the times she complained of recurrent symptoms of pruritic curdy discharge within a few days of apparent relief of symptoms. Which of the following is the least likely explanation for the foregoing treatment failures?
(A) Presence of diabetes predisposing to candidiasis
(B) Presence of HIV disease
© Infection with candidal species other than albicans
(D) Incorrect diagnosis of candida vaginitis
(E) Presence of immunity compromise due to cancer chemotherapy