Which of the following is most appropriate?

A 60-year-old single male who has multiple sexual partners presents complaining of a painless chancre on his penis. His VDRL test returns a positive result. Administration of which of the following is most appropriate?

1.Amphotericin B
2.Azithromycin
3.Erythromycin
4.Penicillin G
5.Penicillin V

Correct answer
Penicillin G

Syphilis, in its primary stage, presents with a solitary, painless chancre. It is caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. The gold standard for treatment is Penicillin G, which is the parenteral form. Penicillin V is the oral equivalent. Erythromycin and Azithromycin could be used to treat Haemophilus ducreyi, a sexually transmitted pathogen that presents with painful chancroid. Amphotericin B is an antifungal agent.