A 70-year-old African-American man presents to his physician for a routine physical examination. The patient denies any current or past medical problems, and results of physical examination are normal. Routine laboratory tests show an abnormal monoclonal serum immunoglobulin level. Additional studies including a bone scan, CT of the abdomen, and a 24-hour urine collection reveal no abnormalities. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
(A) Prescribe a bisphosphonate
(B) Prescribe high-dose steroids
© Prescribe vinca alkaloids
(D) Recommend daily anticoagulation with aspirin
(E) Repeat laboratory tests in six months