Medicine Questions and answers

Treatment for multiple sclerosis
a) Interferon alpha
b) Interferon beta
c) Infliximab A
d) Interferon gamma

Correct answer : b) Interferon beta

Pancytopenia with cellular marrow is seen in all except
a) Megaloblastic anemia
b) Myelodysplasia
c) Paroxysmal Noctumal hemoglobinuria
d) G6PD deficiency

Correct answer : d) G6PD deficiency

Persistent low C3 complement level is not found in
a) Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
b) Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis
c) Cryoglobulinemia
d) SLE

Correct answer : a) Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

Charcots joint is seen in all of the following except
a.Syringomyelia
b.Leprosy
c.Diabetes
d.Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita

Correct answer : d) Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita

Which deleterious effect is least likely to occur in hypothermia
a) Cardiac arryhthmia
b) Decreased peripheral resistance
c) Reversible coagulation
d) Renal failure

Correct answer : b) Decreased peripheral resistance

Reflux disease which cause proteinuria of nephrotic range
a) Membranous glomerulonephritis
b) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
e) Nodular glomerulosclerosis
d) Crescenteric glomerulonephritis

Correct answer : b) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

Carey Coombs murmur, which is false
a) Delayed diastolic murmur
b) Seen in rheumatic fever
c) Can be associated with A.R.
d) Low pitched murmur

Correct answer : c) Can be associated with A.R.

Mutation in alpha 5 chain of collagen 4, the diagnosis is:
a) Alport’s syndrome
b) Thin membrane disease
c) Nodular glomerulosclerosis
d) Good pasture syndrome

Correct answer : a) Alport’s syndrome

(Alport’ syndrome is a hereditary nephritis characterized by microscopic hematuria and deafness.

A.M.L. with worst prognosis
a) 8/21 translocation
b) Inversion 16
c) Normal cytogenetics
d) Monosomy 7

Correct answer : d) Monosomy 7

Neurocardiogenic syncope, the least useful investigation is :
a) Tilt table
b) Carotid sinus massage
c) Carotid duplex scan
d) Orthostatic blood pressure recording

Correct answer : c) Carotid duplex scan

A 21 year old male presents with anemia and mild hepatosplenomegaly. His hemoglobin is 5 gm/dL history of single blood transfusion is present till date. Most probable diagnosis is :
a) Thalassemia major
b) Thalassemia minor
c) Thalasseniia intermedia
d) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

Correct answer : d) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A boy is suffering from acute pyelonephritis. Most specific urinary finding will be
a) W.B.C. casts
b) Leucocyte esterase test
c) Nitrite test
d) Bacteria in gram stain

Correct answer : a) W.B.C. casts

Most common site of intracranial hemorrhage in hypertensive hemorrhage is :
a) Basal ganglia
b) Brainstem
c) Cerebellum
d) Hippocampus

Correct answer : a) Basal ganglia

30 year male with chronic diarrhoea, anemia, raised liver enzymes. Most likely associated with
a) Antimitochondrial antibody
b) Anti endomysial antibody
c) Anti smooth muscle antibody
d) Antinuclear antibody

Correct answer : b) Anti endomysial antibody

Interstitial nephritis is seen with all except :
a) Beta lactam inhibitors
b) INH
c) Diuretics
d) Allopurinol

Correct answer : b) INH

Nephrocalcinosis is seen in all except :
a) Sarcoidosis
b) Distal RTA
c) Milk alkali syndrome
d) Medullary cystic kidney

Correct answer : d) Medullary cystic kidney

Features seen in hemolytic anemia are all except
a) Tear drop and Burr cells
b) Decreased Haptoglobin
c) Reticulocytosis
d) Hemoglobinuria

Correct answer : a) Tear drop and Burr cells

A female child with virilization, hypertension and low plasma renin. Diagnosis is :
a) 21 alpha hydroxylase deficiency
b) 11 beta hydroxylase deficiency
c) 3 beta hydroxylase deficiency
d) Conn’s syndrome

Correct answer : b) 11 beta hydroxylase deficiency

Ratio of AST/ALT > 1 present in
a) Non alcoholic steatohepatitis
b) Alcoholic hepatitis
c) Wilson’s disease
d) All of the above

Correct answer : b) Alcoholic hepatitis

Increased anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in all except :
a) Starvation
b) Salicylate poisoning
c) Lactic acidosis
d) Diarrhoea

Correct answer : d) Diarrhoea

Mnemonic for causes of increased anion gap metabolic acidosis: MUDPILES
M-Methanol
U-Uremia (chronic renal failure)
D-Diabetic ketoacidosis
P-Propylene glycol
I-Infection, Iron, Isoniazid
L-Lactic acidosis
E-Ethylene glycol
S-Salicylates, Starvation

All are associated with MEN-2 except :
a) Pheochromocytoma
b) lslet cell hyperplasia
c) Medullary carcinoma thyroid
d) Parathyroid adenoma

Correct answer : b) lslet cell hyperplasia

Addison’s disease is associated with all except
a) Cardiac atrophy
b) Decreased diastolic B.P.
c) Serum cortisol < 8 d) Low renin levels
Correct answer : d) Low renin levels

Which of the following dietary interventions reduces the further risk in MI patients-
a) High fibre diet
b) Sterol esters
c) Potassium supplements
d) n3 polyunsaturated fatty acids

Correct answer : d) n3 polyunsaturated fatty acids

Reticulocytosis is seen in all except :
a) P.N.H.
b) Hemolysis
c) Nutritional anemia
d) Dyserythropoietic syndrome

Correct answer : c) Nutritional anemia

Earliest phenotypic manifestation of Idiopathic hereditary hemochromatosis is :
a) Post prandial increase in serum iron concentration
b) Elevated serum ferritin level
c) Slate grey pigmentation of skin
d) Increased transferrin saturation

Correct answer : d) Increased transferrin saturation

Half and half nail sign, seen in uremia is
a) Due to melanin deposition
b) Increased capillary density at the distal half of nails
c) Hypoproteinemia
d) Circulating toxin

Correct answer : b) Increased capillary density at the distal half of nails

A two year old male child was given 8 days of cefaclor of a 10 days course. The child develops low grade fever, malaise lymphadenopathy, irritability, generalized erythematous rash which are mildly pruritic. Most probable diagnosis is
a) Kawasaki disease
b) Partially treated meningitis
c) Infectious mononucleosis
d) Type 3 hypersensitivity

Correct answer : d) Type 3 hypersensitivity

Kawasaki disease – the child does not have the classical features like non purulent conjunctivitis and cervical adenopathy
Infectious mononucleosis – Usually occurs in adolescents and adults. EBV infection is usually asymptomatic in children.

Atkin‘s diet is
a) Protein restricted low calorie diet
b) Carbohydrate restricted low calorie diet
c) Fat restricted low calorie diet
d) Mineral restricted low calorie diet

Correct answer : b) Carbohydrate restricted low calorie diet

Most common site of histiocytosis is
a) Bone
b) Skin
c) Lung
d) Liver

Correct answer : a) Bone

Best method to monitor intracranial pressure is
a) lntraventricular catheter
b) Subarachnoid bolt
c) Intraparenchymal catheter
d) Epidural catheter

Correct answer : a) lntraventricular catheter

A man takes peanut and develop stridor, neck swelling, tongue swelling and hoarseness of voice. Most probable diagnosis is
a) Foreign body bronchus
b) Parapharyngeal abscess
c) Foreign body larynx
d) Angioneurotic edema

Correct answer : d) Angioneurotic edema

Digital clubbing is seen in all except
a) Endocarditis
b) Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula
c) Tricuspid atresia
d) Aortic dissection

Correct answer : d) Aortic dissection

Life threatening complications of diabetes mellitus are all except :
a) Malignant otitis externa
b) Rhinocerebral mucormycosis
c) Emphysematous pyelonephritis
d) Emphysematous appendicitis

Correct answer : d) Emphysematous appendicitis

In primary pulmonary hypertension basic abnormality in gene lies in
a) Bone morphogenetic protein receptor II
b) Endothelin
c) Homeobox gene
d) PAX-1 1

Correct answer : a) Bone morphogenetic protein receptor II

Which is useful to decrease mortality and renal failure in acute liver disease due to alcoholism
a) Pentoxifylline
b) Orlistat
c) S—Adenosyl methionine
d) Spiramycin

Correct answer : a) Pentoxifylline

Water hammer pulse seen in
a) Aortic stenosis
b) Aortic regurgitation
c) Aortic stenosis and Aortic regurgitation
d) Mitral regurgitation

Correct answer : b) Aortic regurgitation

Causes of raised J.V.P. with hypotension are all except
a) Cardiac tamponade
b) Right ventricular M.I.
c) Heart failure
d) 2nd degree A.V. block

Correct answer : d) 2nd degree A.V. block

Causes of raised JVP with hypotension:

Cardiac tamponade
Right ventricular MI
Right heart failure
Constrictive pericarditis
Restrictive cardiomyopathy

lnfective endocarditis due to pseudomonas is most commonly seen with
a) Intravenous drug abuse of pentazocin
b) HIV patient
c) Chronic steroid therapy
d) Elderly with community acquired pneumonia

Correct answer : a) Intravenous drug abuse of pentazocin

Pseudomonas endocarditis is seen in intravenous drug abusers and those with prosthetic heart valves.

All are associated with pituitary apoplexy except :
a) Hyperthyroidism
b) Diabetes mellitus
c) Sickle cell anemia
d) Hypertension

Correct answer : a) Hyperthyroidism

Due to decrease in TSH secretion, there is hypothyroidism in pituitary apoplexy. The other options are known causes of pituitary apoplexy.

Hemolytic uremic syndrome is associated with all except
a) EHEC
b) Shigella
c) Campylobacter
d) Vibrio cholera

Correct answer : d) Vibrio cholera

Infections causing hemolytic uremic syndrome:

Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli
Shigella dysenteriae type 1
Campylobacter jejuni
Streptococcus pneumoniae
HIV

Most common catheter induced blood infection is due to
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Coagulase negative staphylococci
c) Gram negative bacilli
d) Candida

Correct answer : b) Coagulase negative staphylococci

Plasmapheresis (plasma exchange therapy) is used in the treatment of
a) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
b) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
c) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
d) Hemolytic uremic syndrome

Correct answer : c) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
(It can also be used for HUS, but is not as successful)

Arsenic is used in treatment of
a) Acute promyelocytic leukemia
b) A.L.L.
c) CML
d) Transient myeloproliferative disorder

Correct answer : a) Acute promyelocytic leukemia

True regarding Couvade syndrome is?
A. A male experiencing pregnancy symptoms
B. A pregnant female who believes that she is not pregnant
C. Excessive urge for taking drugs
D. Opiods are treatment of choice

Correct answer : A. A male experiencing pregnancy symptoms

Couvade syndrome (sympathetic pregnancy / phantom pregnancy) is a condition in which a man experiences some of the same symptoms and behavior of an expectant mother.

Treatment of severe ulnar neuritis in borderline tuberculoid leprosy is:
A. MDT only
B. MDT + steroid
C. Wait and watch
D. MDT + thalidomide
(MDT = Multi Drug Therapy)

Correct answer : B. MDT + steroid

All of the following organs may be involved in Leprosy except:
A. Uterus
B. Ovary
C. Testes
D. Eye

Correct answer : A. Uterus

Female genital tract is seldom involved in leprosy. Ovary is the most common site of leprosy in the female genital tract.

Which of the following is the classical CSF finding seen in Tuberculous meningitis?
A. Increased protein, decreased sugar, increased lymphocytes
B. Increased protein, sugar and lymphocytes
C. Decreased protein, increased sugar and lymphocytes
D. Increased sugar, protein and neutrophils

Correct answer : A. Increased protein, decreased sugar, increased lymphocytes

The following are components of Brown Sequard syndrome except :
A. Ipsilateral extensor plantar response
B. lpsilateral pyramidal tract involvement
C. Contralateral spinothalamic tract involvement
D. Contralateral posterior column involvement

Correct answer : D. Contralateral posterior column involvement

In brown sequard syndrome ( hemisection of spinal cord ), there is ipsilateral posterior colum involvement.

All of the following statements are true about Benedict’s syndrome, except:
A. Contralateral tremor
B. 3rd nerve palsy
C. Involvement of the penetrating branch of the basilar artery
D. Lesion at the level of the pons

Correct answer : D. Lesion at the level of the pons

Benedict’s syndrome is a dorsal mid brain syndrome.

Millard Gubler syndrome includes the following except :
A. 5th nerve palsy
B. 6th nerve palsy
C. 7th nerve palsy
D. Contralateral hemiparesis

Correct answer : A. 5th nerve palsy

Millard Gubler syndrome (ventral pontine syndrome) is characterised by:

Ipsilateral paresis of lateral rectus (6th nerve)
Ipsilateral UMN type of facial weakness (7th nerve)
Contralateral hemiplegia (pyramidal tract)

Pontine Stroke is associated with all except :
A. Bilateral pin point pupil
B. Pyrexia
C. Vagal palsy
D. Quadriparesis

Correct answer : C. Vagal palsy

Vagal palsy is not a component of pontine stroke.

Increased ICT is associated with all except
A. Paraparesis
B. Abducent paralysis
C. Headache
D. Visual blurring

Correct answer : A. Paraparesis

Increased ICT alone does not cause paraparesis. It can occur if the increased ICT is due to a mass lesion in the parasagittal region.

The following are components of Kawasaki disease except,
A. Purulent conjunctivitis
B. Pedal edema
C. Truncal rash
D. Pharyngeal congestion

Correct answer : A. Purulent conjunctivitis

Non purulent conjunctivitis is seen in Kawasaki disease.

All of the following true about Raynaud’s disease except:
A. More common in females
B. Positive Antinuclear Antibodies
C. Most common cause of raynaud’s phenomenon
D. Has good prognosis

Correct answer : B. Positive Antinuclear Antibodies

Antinuclear Antibodies are seen only in secondary causes of Raynaud’s phenomenon. Raynaud’s disease refers to idiopathic Raynaud’s phenomenon.

Best marker for drug induced lupus is.
A. Anti histone antibodies
B. Anti ds DNA
C. Anti neutrophil antibody
D. Anti Smith antibody

Correct answer : A. Anti histone antibodies

Anti histone antibodies are the best markers for drug induced lupus.

Deposition of Anti ds DNA antibody in kidney, skin, choroid plexus and joints is seen in:
A. SLE
B. Goodpasture syndrome
C. Scleroderma
D. Raynauds disease

Correct answer : A. SLE

Anti ds DNA antibody is specific for SLE.

C- ANCA positivity indicates antibody formed against
A. Proteinase 3
B. Myeloperoxidase
C. Cytoplasmic antinuclear Antibody
D. Anti centromeric Antibody

Correct answer : A. Proteinase 3

Proteinase 3 is the major C ANCA antigen.

Hypophosphatemia is seen in all except:
A. Acute renal failure
B. Resolving phases of diabetic ketocidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis / COPD
D. Chronic alcoholism

Correct answer : A. Acute renal failure

Hyperphosphatemia is seen in renal failure.

SIADH is associated with the following drug:
A. Vincristine
B. Erythromycin
C. 5 — FU
D. Methotrexate

Correct answer : A. Vincristine

Treatment of choice for Zollinger Ellison Syndrome (ZES) is:
A. PPI
B. Somatostatin analogues
C. Streptozocin
D. Sucralfate

Correct answer : PPI

Which of the following endocrine tumors is most commonly seen in MEN I?
A. lnsulinoma
B. Gastrinoma
C. Glucagonoma
D. Somatostatinoma

Correct answer : Gastrinoma

A 60 year old woman presents with generalized edema, skin ulceration and hypertension. Urine examination shows subnephrotic proteinuria (<2gm) and microscopic hematuria. Serum complement levels are decreased and she is positive for anti-hepatitis C antibodies. The likely diagnosis is :

A. PSGN
B. Essential mixed cryoglobulinemia
C. Membrano proliferative glomerulonephritis
D. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

Correct answer : Essential mixed cryoglobulinemia

The test used to diagnose Dubin Johnson syndrome is:
A. Serum transminases
B. Bromsulphalein test (BSP)
C. Hippurate test
D. Gamma glutamyl transferase level

Answer: B. Bromsulphalein test (BSP)

A 30 year old man presents with generalized edema and hypertension. Urine examination shows subnephrotic proteinuria (< 2gm) and microscopic hematuria. Serum complement levels are decreased and he is positive for antihepatitis C antibodies. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Post streptococcal Glomerulonephritis (PSGN)
B. Mixed cryoglobulinemia
C. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)
D. Focal symental Glomerular sclerosis (FSGS)

Answer: C. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN) > B. Mixed cryoglobulinemia

Most common cause of nephrotic range proteinuria in an adult is:
A. Diabetes Mellitus
B. Amyloidosis
C. Hypertensive nephropathy
D. Wegner`s Granulomatosis

Answer: A. Diabetes Mellitus

A patient presents with chronic small bowel diarrhea, duodenal biopsy shows villous atrophy. Anti endomysial antibodies and IgA TTG antibodies are positive. What is the treatment of choice?
A. Gluten free diet
B. Antibiotics
C. Loperamide
D. 5—ASA

Answer:A. Gluten free diet

The clinical picture and investigation findings are suggestive of coeliac sprue. The treatment is gluten free diet.

A patient with H. Pylori infection is treated with drugs. The best method to detect presence of residual H.Pylori infection in this person is :
A. Rapid urease test
B. Urea breath test
C. Endoscopy and biopsy
D. Serum anti H.Pylori titre

Ans: B. Urea breath test

Recommended test for confirmation of H.pylori eradication – urea breath test.

All of the following drugs are commonly used in regimens against H. pylori except:
A. Oxytetracycline
B. Amoxicillin
C. Bismuth Subcitrate
D. Omeprazole

Answer : A. Oxytetracycline

Oxytetracycline is not a recommended drug for treatment of H.pylori.

A patient presents with decreased vital capacity and total lung volume. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Bronchiectasis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Asthma

Answer : B. Sarcoidosis

A restrictive lung disease causes decrease in vital capacity and total lung volume. Among the options provided, sarcoidosis is the only one causing a restrictive lung disease.

A 70 year old man develops pneumonia and septicemia. Patient goes into renal failure and has a BP of 70/50 mm of Hg. Drug that should be used to maintain BP is:
A. Adrenaline
B. Ephedrine
C. Phenylephrine
D. Nor epinephrine

Answer : D. Nor epinephrine

The patient is in septic shock. Dopamine is the recommended drug for maintenance of BP in a case of septic shock. If there is no response, nor epinephrine should be tried. Since nor epinephrine is the only one given among the options, it is the best answer.

A patient presents with acute anterior wall infarction and hypotension. Which will be the immediate treatment modality for this patient?
A. Intra aortic balloon counter pulsation
B. Anticoagulation
C. Thrombolytic therapy
D. Angiography and Primary angioplasty

Answer: D. Angiography and Primary angioplasty

Angiography and primary angioplasty is the best modality of treatment in case of ST eleveation MI presenting within 12 hours.

A person with mitral regurgitation and atrial fibrillation presents with syncope. On examination the person has a heart rate of 55. What is the most probable cause?
A. Digitalis toxicity
B. Incomplete heart block
C. Stroke
D. Subarachnoid Haemorrhage

Answer : Digitalis toxicity

It is probably a case of digitalis toxicity resulting in complete heart block.

CCF is associated with Increase in all of the following except:
A. Right atrial mean pressure
B. Serum sodium
C. Serum urea
D. Serum norepinephrine

Answer : Serum sodium

Hyponatremia is seen in CCF

The following ECG findings are seen in Hypokalemia:
A. Increased PR interval with ST depression
B. Increased PR interval with peaked T wave
C. Prolonged QT interval with T wave inversion
D. Decreased QT interval with ST depression

Answer : A. Increased PR interval with ST depression

ECG changes in hypokalemia – ST depression, prolonged PR interval, T inversion / flattening, Prominent U waves, Sinoatrial block (rare)

The following is the least useful investigation in multiple myeloma:
A. ESR
B. X-Ray
C. Bone scan
D. Bone marrow biopsy

Answer : Bone scan
Osteoblastic activity is suppressed by myeloma cells. (through secretion of cytokines). Hence these site show no increased uptake during bone scan.

Which is not true regarding Bernard soulier syndrome?
A. Ristocetin aggregation is normal
B. Aggregation with collagen and ADP is normal
C. Large platelets
D. Thrombocytopenia

Answer: A. Ristocetin aggregation is normal

Bernard Soulier platelets react normally to all stimuli except Ristocetin.

The following set of finding is seen in DIC:
A. Increased fibrinogen, increased antithrombin III, increased thrombin – antithrombin III complexes
B. Increased FDP, decreased PT, increased antithrombin III
C. Increased FDP, prolonged PT, increased thrombin-antithrombin complexes
D. Increased FDP, prolonged PT, reduced platelets

Answer : D. Increased FDP, prolonged PT, reduced platelets

A patient on aspirin, will show the following finding?
A. Prolonged BT
B. Prolonged PT
C. Prolonged APTT
D. Prolonged CT

Correct answer : Prolonged BT

Erythropoietin is increased in all of the following conditions except:
A. Hepatocellular carcinoma
B. Renal cell carcinoma
C. Cerebellar Hemangioblastoma
D. Pancreatic carcinoma

Correct answer : Pancreatic carcinoma

Which of the following statements about Mycosis fungoides is not true:
A. lt is the most common form of cutaneous lymphoma
B. Pautriers microabscess
C. lndolent course and easily amenable to treatment
D. Erythroderma seen and spreads to peripheral circulation

Correct answer : Indolent course and easily amenable to treatment

80 year old, asymptomatic man present with a Total Leucocyte Count of 1 lakh, with 80% lymphocytes and 20% PMC’s, What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. HIV
B. CML
C. CLL
D. TB

Correct answer : CLL

ln PML, all of the following are seen except :
A. Retinoic acid is used in treatment
B. 15/17 translocation may be seen
C. CD 15/34 both seen in same cell
D. Associated with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

Correct answer : CD 15/34 both seen in same cell

Bone marrow biopsy is absolutely indicated in,
A. Acute leukemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Hairy cell leukemia
D. Thalassemia

Correct answer : Hairy cell leukemia

Pancytopenia with cellular marrow is seen in:
A. PNH
B. G6PD deficiency
C. Acquired aplastic anemia
D. Thalassemia

Correct answer : PNH

A normotensive patient with normal hemoglobin suffered massive blood loss. The following findings would be present in him except:
A. Increased PCV
B. Increased MCV
C. Thrombocytosis
D. Reticulocytosis

Submit your answers in the comments section below!

Which of the following findings is diagnostic of iron deficiency anemia?
A. Increased TIBC, decreased serum ferritin
B. Decreased TIBC, decreased serum ferritin
C. Increased TIBC, increased serum ferritin
D. Decreased TIBC, increased serum ferritin

Correct answer : Increased TIBC, decreased serum ferritin

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is associated with malignancy of which lineage?
A. T cell
B. B cell
C. Pre B cell
D. Pre T cell

Correct answer : B cell

The most useful therapeutic agent in high altitude pulmonary oedema is:
A. Nitrates
B. Furosemide
C. Digitalis
D. Aminophylline

Correct answer : Furosemide