-
True about mammography
a. Offered to 50-70 % females in india
b. Most suspicious lesions are confirmed as malignant
c. Not of much value in postmenopausal
d. Cause 30% reduction in mortality
2. 40 yr old female with family history of ca breast showed diffuse microcalcification on mammography, fnac confirmed as DCIS, should be offered
a. Mrm with axillary sampling
b. Radiotherapy
c. Chemotherapy
d. Wide local excision
3. True abt male ca breast
a. Give radiotherapy to all of them
4. Skin layers superficial to deep
a. Stratum corneum, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
5. AKT drug not given in Hiv pt due to interaction with ART is
a. INH
b. Rifampicin
c. Pyrazinamide
d. Ethambutol
6. Drug not modified in renal disease
a. Cyclophosphamide
b. Doxorubicin
c. Etoposide
d. Capacitabine
7. Incindentally found T2 GB malignancy should be
a. Observed closely
b. Radical surgery
c. Chemotherapy
d. Radiotherapy
8. Cause of diffuse lymphadenopathy in HIV pt
a. Hodgkins
b. NHL
c. B cell lymphoma
9. Spleenic lymphoma in pt exposed to thorium dioxide
a. NHL
b. Hodgkins
10. OPSI is more common when spelenctomy is done for
a. Malignancy
b. Trauma
c. Splenic abcess
11. Most common cong diaphragmatic hernia
a. Right posterolateral
b. Left
c. Anterolateral
d. Esophageal
12. Calcitonin gene related peptide secreted from
a. C- cells of thyroid
13. Interstitial edema in pancreas with extrapancreatic changes, Balthazar score is
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
14. Pancreatic injury to ampulla is considered Grade
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
15. Severity of pancreatitis is not assessed by
a. Organ failure
b. Infective necrosis
c. Abscess
d. Interstitial edema
16. Best for localising gastrinoma
a. Octreotide scan
b. Tc99m scan
c. Selective gastrin sampling assay
17. Best for localising pheochromocytoma
a. CT/PET
b. Tc99m scan
c. MRI
d. MIBG scan
18. Not true about short bowel syndrome
a. Proximal resection is less tolerated than distal resection
b. Around 70 % resection is tolerated if terminal ileum and ic valve are intact
c. Diarrhea is due to hypergastrinemia
19. Not true about VIPoma is
a. Around 3litre / day diarrhea
b. Hypokalemia and achlorhydria
c. Not treated completely with somatosatin analogue
20. Ureterosigmoidostomy true
a. Hypokalemic hyperchloremic acidosis
21. True abt adaptation in short bowel syndrome
a. Increase length of each villi
b. Increase number of villi
c. Increase length of bowel
22. Air-fluid levels not seen in
a. Volvulus
b. Meconium ileus
23. Most common precancerous lesion for ca colon
a. Familial polyposis
b. Hamartomatosis
c. Juvenile polyposis
24. Most malignant precancerous polyp
a. Villous
b. Tubule-villous
25. Vit b12 is abdorbed in
a. Ileum
b. Ascending colon
c. Duodenum
d. Jejunum
26. Stippled calcification is seen in
a. Neuroblastoma
b. Wilms tumor
27. Commonest pedia fracture
a. Radius
b. Ulna
28. Common at upper end humerus is
a. Aneurismal bone cyst
b. Unicameral bone cyst
29. Nerve affected in surgical neck humerus fracture
a. Axillary
b. Radial
30. Treatment in 6 week old fracture neck femur is
a. Sp nail
b. Hemiarthroplasty
c. Observation
31. Popliteal artery injury in fracture lowr end femus is due to
a. Compression by distal segment
b. Compression by prox segment
c. Compression by cast
d. Compression by local hematoma
32. True abt palmar incision
a. Kept over skin crease
b. Kept parallel to skin crease
c. Kept perpendicular to skin crease
33. Most dreaded complication in untreated Felon
a. Infective tenosynovitis
b. Fingertip gangrene
34. Treatment in Dupuytrens contracture
a. Radical fasciectomy
b. Conservative fasciectomy
c. Percutaneus fasciotomy
d. Dermofasciectomy
35. Peyronies disease is due to contraction at
a. Bucks fascia
b. Corpus spongiosum
c. Corpora cavernosa
36. Extravasation of urine in penile injury is limited to attachments of Colles fascia due to rupture of
a. Bucks fascia
b. Intercavernosal septum
c. Tunica albuginea
d. Dartos muscle
37. In a patient with failed endotherapy for bleeding eso varices, not true is
a. Distal splenorenal shunt is choice as emergency shunt as it selectively decompreses esophageal varices
b. Pharmacotherapy with octreotide and vasopressin is as effective as endotherapy
c. With Class C cirrhosis there is 50% mortality
38. Best prognostic indicator in ca penis is
a. Disease limited to glans penis
b. Histology of tumor
c. Involvement of lymphnodes
d. Stage of tumor
39. Placental alkaline phosphatise is marker for
a. Seminoma
b. Teratoma
c. Choriocarcinoma
40. Liver segment not drained into right hepatic duct is
a. I
b. III
c. VIII
d. V
41. In children, sternotomy is best covered by which flap
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Pectoralis major
c. Rectus abdominis
42. Groin flap is a type of
a. Rotation
b. Composite
c. Axial flap
d. Advancement
43. TRAM flap is based on which vessels
a. Superior epigastric
b. Superficial inferior epigastric
44. Complete nasal reconstruction is best done by
a. Cheek flap
b. Free flap
c. Forehead flap
d. Pectoral flap
45. Maximum increase in length after Zplasty occurs
a. Along the line of median incision
b. At right angle to the line of median incision
c. Is due to interpolation of triangles
46. Sandy patches seen in
a. Schistosomiasis
b. Tuberculosis of bladder
47. Suprapubic pain, frequency of urine, dysuria, tenesmus are due to
a. Vesico-enteric fistula
b. Vesico-uterine fistula
c. Uretero-vaginal fistula
d. Vesico-vaginal fistula
48. Caloric requirement to maintain BMR in an adult male is
a. 20-22 Kcal/kg/day
b. 37-40
c. 25-28
d. 32-37
49. Fluid in 24 hours acc to Parklands formula in burns is
a. 2 ml/%burns surface/kg body wt
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
50. True about RCC
a. Produces varieties of hormone and hormone like substances
b. In solitary kidney with RCC at pole, after partial nephrectomy wud eventually require total nephrectomy and dialysis
c. Defect in ivp is diagnostic of RCC
51. In ca pancreas, all these indicate inoperability except
a. Encasement of portal vein by tumor
b. Encasement of superior mesenteric artery by tumor
c. Very poor performance of patient
d. Distant mets
52. Maintainance fluid in a child weighing 22 kg is
a. 640ml/d
b. 1350
c. 1550
d. 2250
53. Best prognostic indicator in acute liver failure is
a. Serum alfa feto protein
b. Serum bilirubin
c. Serum albumin
d. Factor V
54. Bupivacaine toxicity manifests primarily as
a. Cns excitation and convulsions
b. Cns depression and resp depression
c. Cvs excitation and hypertension
d. Cvs depression and arrest
55. Proportion of semen to which prostate contributes
a. ½
b. ¼
c. 1/6
d. 1/8
56. Serum – ascetic albumin ration is altered in
a. Cirrhosis
b. Budd-chiari syndrome
c. ?Pancreatic ascites (not sure if this option was there)
d. Carcinamatosis peritonei
e. ?Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma pancreas
f. Congestive heart failure
57. False abt thymoma
a. Red cell aplasia
b. Hypoalbuminemia
c. Mysthanea gravis
d. Hypogammaglobulinemia
58. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis more likely to occur in
a. Cirrhosis
b. Budd-chiari syndrome
c. ?Pancreatic ascites (not sure if this option was there)
d. Carcinamatosis peritonei
e. ?Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma pancreas
f. Congestive heart failure
59. Most common variation of bile ducts
a. Confluence of triple ducts right anterior, right posterior and left hepatic
b. Right posterior opens into left hepatic
c. Right posterior opens it main bile duct
d. Right anterior opens into cystic duct
60. Most common injury in lap chole is to
a. Stomach
b. Duodenum
c. Colon
d. Jejunum
61. Duodenal diverticulum is common is which part
a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth
62. Treatment of annular pancreas
a. Duodeno-duodenostomy
b. Duodeno-jejunostomy
c. Annular pancreas division and then duodeno-duodenostomy
63. Microcolon on Barium enema not seen in
a. Total colonic aganglionosis
b. Ileojejunal atresia
c. Rectal atresia
64. False abt chronic pancreatitis
a. Intractable pain is most common indication for surgery
b. Surgery provides symptomatic relief only
c. Diverting procedures are less tolerated than resectional procedures
65. False about pseudomyxoma peritonei/peritoneal carcinomatosis (?)
a. Complete cytoreductive surgery with intraperitoneal hyperthermic chemotherapy is treatment of choice
b. CEA and CA 19-9 are common markers used
66. Not true about lymphedema precox
a. Most common form of primary lymphedema
b. Starts in childhood
c. Mostly affects only calf and food
67. Absolute indication of TURP
a. First episode of urinary retention
b. Post void residual volume >300ml
c. Refractory hemorrhage due to BPH
d. Overactive detrusor(?)
68. Maximum voiding pressure in men is
a. 30 cm H20
b. 40
c. 50
d. 60
69. PCN rather than urinary stenting is best indicated in
a. PUJ obstruction
b. Lower ureteric stone
c. Pyonephrosis
70. Not a criteria for critical limb ischemia
a. Ankle pressure <50
b. Systolic toe pressure > 60 mmHg
71. 2(?) weeks after blunt abdominal injury, pt develops abd pain, jaundice, hemetemesis, likely diagnosis is
a. Hemobilia
b. ?biliary stricture
72. Hyperoxaluria due to increased enteral absorption is best treated by
a. Restriction of oxalates in diet
b. Calcium supplementation and drinking plenty of fluids
c. Allupurinol
73. Commonest cause of acute scrotum in children
a. Epididymitis
b. Torsion of appendages
c. Intravaginal testicular torsion
d. Extravaginal testicular torsion
74. TPN is most commonly indicated in
a. Gastroschisis
b. Omphalocele
c. Cloacal extrophy
d. Bladder extrophy
75. CVP catheter related infection occurs less when CVP is in
a. Internal jugular
b. Subclavian
c. Brachial
d. Femoral
76. Gonococcal urthral stricture is most commonly in
a. Bulbar
b. Penoscrotal junction
c. Distal meatal
d. Membranous
77. Ideal time for hypospadiasis surgery is
a. 3-6 months
b. 6-12 months
c. 3-4 years
d. 6-7 years
78. Infertility occurring in priapism is related to
a. Aggressiveness of priapism treatment
b. Duration of priapism
c. More when arterial inflow is high
d. The type of priapism surgery
79. Best treatment for infantile hemangioma is
a. Observation
b. Excision
c. Laser
d. Sclerotharapy
80. Best prognosis in rhabdomyosarcoma is in which type
a. Pleomorphic
b. Alveolar
c. “botrylic(?)”
d. Anaplastic
81. True abt nutrition in cancer pt is
a. Given for 2 weeks before surgery in all pt
b. Parenteral route preferred
c. Nutrition building is must before all surgery (?)
d. None
82. Interleukins in crohn’s disease are
a. 1,2,6
b. 1,2,8
c. 2,6,8
83. Capillary leakage in burns starts after
a. 6 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 3 days
84. Acute transplant rejection is mediated by
a. Host T cells and host antigen presenting cells
b. Donor T cells and antibodies
c. ….
85. Second hit in pancreatitis is said when it is due to
a. Bacterial translocation
b. Absorption of endotoxins
86. Synovial thickening of knee is best visualised by
a. Ct scan
b. Plain mri
c. Gadolinium enhanced mri
d. Joint arthrography
87. Ankylosing spondilytis is often associated with
a. Reiters disease
88. Best study for diagnosing partial intestinal obstruction is
a. Abdomen xray standing
b. Barium meal follow thru
c. Contrast ct scan
d. Mri abdomen
89. A 2 yr old child swallowed alkaline battery and is seen in intestine upon xray, the next line is
a. Observation
b. Urgent laparotomy, idendity, open ileum and remove battery
c. Laparoscopy, ultrasound localisation and removal
90. Not seen in early stage of septic shock is
a. Increase cardiac output
b. Decrease uring output
c. Warm extremities
d. Tachycardia
91. Not true about rectus sheath hematoma
a. Rarely in children
b. Men affected more than women
c. More in pt on anticoagulation
92. Loss of knee reflex indicates motor lesion at
a. L1
b. L2
c. L3
d. L4
93. Intervertebral disc compression at motor root L5 would have loss of
a. Plantar inversion
b. Plantar flexion
c. Plantar extension
d. Plantar eversion
94. Phyryngeal constrictor muscles, true is
a. Anchor pharynx and larynx to structures of mouth and palate
b. Is responsible for the pressure at upper esophageal sphincter
c. Extend upto upper third esophagus
d. ?attached to the base of skull ( m not sure if this option was there)
95. Madura foot is caused 75% of the times by
a. Nocardia
b. Nocardia and streptomyces
c. Actinomyces
96. Not seen in orbital blow out fracture is
a. Enophthalmos
b. Diplopia
c. Limitation of downward gaze
d. None (?) (not sure if it was there)
97. Tinel sign is for
a. Nerve injury
b. Nerve compression
98. Simmond sign if for testing
a. Extensor halucis
b. Abductor halucis
c. Flexor halucis
99. Most powerful thenar muscle is
a. Abductor pollicis
b. Adductor pollicis
c. 3rd interrossei
d. Extensor pollicis brevis
100. Precancerous gall bladder lesion
a. Porcelean gb
b. Cholesterosis
101. Urinary bladder develops from
a. Upper part of cloaca
b. Upper part of urogenital diverticulum
c. Lower part of urogenital diverticulum
d. Allantois
102. Which of this contributes to femoral hernia
a. Femoral vein
b. Fossa ovalis
c. Femoral artery
103. Best prognosis in malignant malenoma is seen in
a. Lentigo maligna
b. Acral lentigous
c. Nodular
d. Superficial spreading
104. Malignant malenoma 1 mm thickness, excision margin should be
a. 1 cm
b. 2 cm
c. 0.5 cm
d. 0.1 cm
105. Macrophages and monocytes appear in wound healing after
a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 3-4 days
d. Immediate
106. False about dupuytrens contracture is
a. Common after trauma
b. Myofibroblasts proliferation is seen
107. False about gunshot injuries
a. Gas gangrene can occur
b. High velocity bullets form straight track in wound
c. Exploration is done once pt is stabilized vitally
108. In delay of skin flaps, about putting parallel incisions, not true about “cork(? I don’t remember exact word) vessels is
a. Cork vessels constrict and initially decrease flow to flap
b. Cork vessels dilate and increase flow to flap
c. Cork vessels donot change, but arteriovenous shunts open which increase blood flow to flap
109. Most accurate for pheochromocytoma is
a. Plasma catecholamines
b. 24 hr Urinary catecholamines
c. Urinary vanillyl mandellic acid
110. Gas in intestinal obstruction comprise of
a. N2 and co2
b. N2 and o2
c. H2s and n2
111. A pt with right colon mass shows in ct scan multiple rings of high and low attenatuation, the diagnosis is likely
a. Intussusceptions
b. Ischemic colitis
c. Phytobezoar
d. Hemangioma
112. Not true about water content in body is
a. Highest percentage in infants
b. In women, water percentage is more than men
113. Following is said to decrease post op ileus
a. Early ambulation
b. Early feeding
c. Prokinetics
d. Nasogastric decompression
114. Postgastrectomy, most commonly seen is
a. Vit b12 deficiency
115. Combined hormonal blockade implies
a. Castration or androgen blockade with lhrh agonists
b. Androgen blockade
c. Castration
d. Castration with lhrh agonists
116. Not a threat to resp system in burns is
a. Involvement of face and neck
b. h/o entrapped in burning room
c. h/o burns entrapped in closed car
d. h/o ingestion of acid
117. most common visceral aneurysm is
a. renal artery
b. superior mesenteric artery
c. splenic artery
118. true abt osteogenic imperfect is
a. autosomal dominant
b. defect in collagen
c. all of above
119. first indicator of rectus sheath hematoma is
a. nausea, anorexia without vomiting
b. sudden pain in abdomen
c. bluish discoloration of abd wall
120. bilirubin is not normal constituent of which fluid
a. CSF
b. Synovial fluid
c. semen