Question 1: Antibiotic treatment of choice for treating cholera in an
adult is a single dose of ?
A) Tetracycline
B) Co-trimoxazole
C) Doxycycline
D) Furazolidone
Answer: C) Doxycycline
Question 2: For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the
following are correct except ?
A) Give Immunoglobins for positive immunity
B) Give ARV
C) Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
D) Immediately wash wound with soap and water
Answer: C) Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
Question 3: A 59 year old man with severe myxomatous mitral regurgitation
is asymptomatic, with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 45% and an
end-systolic diamater index of 2.9 cm/m2. The most appropriate treatment is
?
A) Mitral valve repair or replacement
B) No treatment
C) ACE inhibitor therapy
D) Digoxin and diuretic therapy
Answer: A) Mitral valve repair or replacement
Question 4: Palpable purpura could occur in the following conditions,
except ?
A) Thrombocytopenia
B) Small-vessel vasculitis
C) Disseminated gonococcal infection
D) Acute meningococcemia
Answer: A) Thrombocytopenia
Question 5: A 30 years old male patient presents with complaints of
weakness in right upper and both lower limbs for last 4 months. He
developed digital infarcts involving 2nd and 3rd fingers on right side and
5th finger on left side. On examination, BP was 160/140 mm Hg, all
peripheral pulses were palpable and there was asymmetrical neuropathy.
Investigations showed a Hb-12gm, TLC-12000Cu mm, Platelets 4,30,000, ESR-
49 mm. Urine examination showed proteinuria and RBC 10 - 15 /hpf with no
casts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis ?
A) Polyarteritis nodosa
B) Systemic lupus erythematosus
C) Wegener’s granulomatosis
D) Mixed cryoglobulinemia
Answer: A) Polyarteritis nodosa
Question 6: Which of the following infestation leads to malabsorption ?
A) Giardia lamblia
B) Ascaris lumbricoides
C) Necator americana
D) Ancyclostoma duodenale
Answer: A) Giardia lamblia
Question 7: All of the following can cause osteoporosis, except ?
A) Hyperparathyroidism
B) Steroid use
C) Fluorosis
D) Thyrotoxicosis
Answer: C) Fluorosis
Question 8: Serum angiotensin converting enzyme may be raised in all of
the following except ?
A) Sarcoidosis
B) Silicosis
C) Berylliosis
D) Bronchogenic carcinoma
Answer: D) Bronchogenic carcinoma
Question 9: Hypercalcemia associated with malignancy is most often
mediated by ?
A) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
B) Parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP)
C) Interleukin - 6 (IL-6)
D) Calcitonin
Answer: B) Parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP)
Question 10: All of the following are the causes of relative polycythemia
except ?
A) Dehydration
B) Dengue haemorrhagic fever
C) Gaisbock syndrome
D) High altitude
Answer: D) High altitude
Question 11: All of the following may cause ST segment elevation on EKG,
except ?
A) Early repolarization variant
B) Constrictive pericarditis
C) Ventricular aneurysm
D) Prinzmetal angina
Answer: B) Constrictive pericarditis
Question 12: 5’ - Nucleotidase activity is increased by ?
A) Bone diseases
B) Prostate cancer
C) Chronic renal failure
D) Cholestatic disorders
Answer: D) Cholestatic disorders
Question 13: Normal CSF glucose level in a normoglycemic adult is ?
A) 20 - 40 mg/dL
B) 40 - 70 mg/dL
C) 70 - 90 mg/dL
D) 90 - 110 mg/dL
Answer: B) 40 - 70 mg/dL
Question 14: Bart’s hydrops fetalis is lethal because ?
A) Hb Bart’s cannot bind oxygen
B) The excess á - globin form insoluble precipitates
C) Hb Bart’s cannot release oxygen to fetal tissues
D) Microcytic red cells become trapped in the placenta
Answer: C) Hb Bart’s cannot release oxygen to fetal tissues
Question 15: Cluster headache is characterized by all, except ?
A) Affects predominantly females
B) Unilateral headache
C) Onset typically in 20 - 50 years of life
D) Associated with conjunctival congestion
Answer: A) Affects predominantly females
Question 16: Vitamin B12 deficiency can give rise to all of the following
except ?
A) Myelopathy
B) Optic atrophy
C) Peripheral neuropathy
D) Myopathy
Answer: D) Myopathy
Question 17: EEG is usually abnormal in all of the following except ?
A) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
B) Locked - in state
C) Creutzfeldt - Jackob disease
D) Hepatic encephalopathy
Answer: B) Locked - in state
Question 18: All of the following are neurologic channelopathies except ?
A) Hypokalemiac periodic paralysis
B) Episodic ataxia type I
C) Familial hemiplegic migraine
D) Spinocerebellar ataxia I
Answer: D) Spinocerebellar ataxia I
Question 19: All of the following conditions are known to cause diabetes
insipidus except ?
A) Multiple sclerosis
B) Head injury
C) Hisitiocytosis
D) Viral encehalitis
Answer: A) Multiple sclerosis
Question 20: Antipsychotic drug-induced parkinsonism is treated by ?
A) Anticholinergics
B) Levodopa
C) Selegiline
D) Amantadine
Answer: A) Anticholinergics
Question 21: Which one of the following is used in therapy of
Toxoplasmosis ?
A) Artensenuate
B) Thiacetazone
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Pyrimethamine
Answer: D) Pyrimethamine
Question 22: Which of the following drugs is useful in prophylaxis of
migraine ?
A) Propranolol
B) Sumatriptan
C) Domperidone
D) Ergotamine
Answer: A) Propranolol
Question 23: The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial
pneumonias in the ICU are ?
A) Gram positive organisms
B) Gram negative organisms
C) Mycoplasma
D) Virus infections
Answer: B) Gram negative organisms
Question 24: A 50 year old man, an alcoholic and a smoker presents with a
3 hour history of severe retrosternal chest pain and increasing shortness
of breath. He started having this pain while eating, which was constant and
radiated to the back and interscapular region. He was a known hypertensive.
On examination, he was cold and clammy with a heart rate of 130/min, and a
BP of 80/40 mm Hg. JVP was normal. All peripheral pulses were present and
equal. Breath sounds were decreased at the left lung base and chest x-ray
showed left pleural effusion. Which one of the following is the most likely
diagnosis ?
A) Acute aortic dissection
B) Acute myocardial infarction
C) Rupture of the esophagus
D) Acute pulmonary embolism
Answer: A) Acute aortic dissection
Question 25: Which of the following is a cause of reversible dementia ?
A) Subacute combined degeneration
B) Picks disease
C) Creutzfeldt - Jakob disease
D) Alzheimer’s disease
Answer: A) Subacute combined degeneration
Question 26: The following bacteria are most often associated with acute
neonatal meningitis except ?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Streptococcus agalactiae
C) Neisseria meningitidis
D) Listeria monocytogenes
Answer: C) Neisseria meningitidis
Question 27: Atypical pneumonia can be caused by the following microbial
agents except ?
A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B) Legionella pneumophila
C) Human Corona virus
D) Klebsiella pneumoniae
Answer: D) Klebsiella pneumoniae
Question 28: The most common organism amongst the following that causes
acute meningitis in an AIDS patient is ?
A) Stretococus pneumoniae
B) Streptococcus agalactiae
C) Cryptococcus neoformans
D) Listeria monocytogenes
Answer: C) Cryptococcus neoformans
Question 29: A bacterial disease that has been associated with the 3
A) Leptospirosis
B) Plague
C) Melioidosis
D) Rodent-bite fever
Answer: A) Leptospirosis
Question 30: Which one of the following is true of adrenal suppression due
to steroid therapy ?
A) It is not associated with atrophy of the adrenal glands
B) It does not occur in patients receiving inhaled steroids
C) It should be expected in anyone receiving > 5mg, Prednisolone daily
D) Following cessation, the stress response normalises after 8 weeks
Answer: C) It should be expected in anyone receiving > 5mg, Prednisolone
daily
Question 31: Pancreatitis, pituitary tumor and phaeochromocytoma may be
associated with ?
A) Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
B) Papillary carcinoma of thyroid
C) Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid
D) Follicular carcinoma of thyroid
Answer: A) Medullary carcinoma of thyroid