A patient is post ERCP and develops severe epigastric pain

A young patient is referred after having an eye test for deteriorating vision. Examination reveals elevated blood pressure, 7 large cafe au lait spots, axillary freckles and scoliosis. What is the diagnosis?

Neurofibromatosis type 1
Neurofibromatosis type 2
Phaeochromocytoma
Tuberous sclerosis
Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 1

A patient is post ERCP and develops severe epigastric pain. Given the likely diagnosis, how would you manage this patient?

IV fluids, analgesia and antibiotics
Repeat ERCP
Laparotomy
Analgesia
CT Abdomen

A 60 year old male who is a 40 per day smoker presents with shortness of breath to his GP. He had a cough productive of green sputum over winter. On examination there is wheeze throughout his chest. Pulmonary functions test reveal a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio. There is little response to salbutamol. A chest Xray reveals increased pulmonary vasculature and hyperinflation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

COPD
Interstitial lung disease
Asthma
Pulmonary Embolism
Bronchial Carcinoma

A 67 year old male presents with a cough productive of green sputum. He is generally unwell and feverish. On examination his RR is 22 and there is crackles at the left lower base and dullness to percussion. He has a temperature of 39.2. His heart rate is 100 and his blood pressure is 105/75. Bloods reveal a CRP of 250 and a urea of 9.2 mmol/l and creatinine of 110 mmol/l. A CXR reveals left lower lobe consolidation. Which of the following in this case is a poor prognostic feature?

Urea of 9.2 mmol/L
Systolic BP 105
CRP 250
RR 22
Consolidation on CXR

A 22 year old who has recently recovered from an episode of shigella gastroenteritis, presents with pain and swelling of his left knee and ankle. He also has noticed red eyes and a rash on his glans penis and plaques on his palms and soles. What other feature if present is highly indicative of Reiters Syndrome

Keratoderma blenorrhagica
Positive Rheumatoid Factor
Heliotropic rash
HLA B27
Psoriasis

23 Yrs old girl present to you (usual GP) For her already scheduled “PAP” smear .It was scheduled now because she had a "possible/low grade squamous intra-epithelial lesion"in her routine PAP test six months ago .You try to explain/manage regrading the new recommendation of the Australian Cervical screening test (CST).Which is The CORRECT Statement?

1.As she is only 23 years ,she is advised to return to the office for new “CST” soon after her 25 th Birthday.

2.Cervical screen test is starting from the age of 25 yrs (normal asymptomatic) and conducted every 2 yearly .

3.She can under go new cervical screen test but not eligible for Chlamydia screen.

4.New cervical screen is to Detect Oncogenic virus HPV16/18 in Liquid base medium and cytology in smear based Slide.

5.In this particular case, this girl should under go Cervical screen test ,and if it comes back positive she should under go coloposcopy.

A 68 year old female presents as she has been having trouble sleeping for several months. She states in the evening when she is sitting watching TV or during the night which wakes her from her sleep, she suffers odd sensations in her legs and has the urge to move them which relieves the sensation for a short while. She is otherwise in good health and bloods are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management option?

Ropinirole
Cabergoline
Quinine Sulphate
Diazepam
Gabapentin

Which of the following results suggests SIADH, when a serum sodium is found to be 124 mmol/L?

Plasma osmolality of 240 mmol/kg and Urine osmolality of 600 mmol/Kg
Urea of 1.9
Plasma osmolality of 240 mmol/kg and Urine osmolality of 230 mmol/Kg
Urea of 12.5
Peripheral Oedema