A 56 year old man has been referred by his general practitioner for review of persistent symptoms

A 56 year old man has been referred by his general practitioner for review of persistent symptoms of dyspepsia over the last seven months associated with 6kg of unintentional weight loss. He has no other symptoms, is a smoker and has no significant family history. Examination reveals a left supraclavicular node, a non-tender epigastric mass with an associated succussion splash. Which of the following is a risk factor for the most likely diagnosis?
A
Blood group B
B
Female gender
C
Helicobacter pylori
D
High fibre diet
E
Long term aspirin use
Q8 of 10